View answers to questions received from instructors. These FAQs were last upated Feb. 17, 2025. 

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  • Advertising
  • Agency
    • In the Residential Buyer/Tenant Representation Agreement – Short Form (TXR 1507), where are the duties of “showing service” defined?

      Under the terms of the Short Form, the broker is only obligated to provide the client with access to property in the agreed upon market area. However, the broker must still comply with other legal and ethical duties found in the Code of Ethics, TREC Rules, and licensing laws. For example, Sec. 1101.557 of the TX Occupation Code requires license holders to, at a minimum, answer the party’s questions and present any offer to or from the party. 

    • What if the buyer wants to see a property but doesn't want to sign a buyer rep agreement and you are not the listing brokerage?

      You would only be able to show the property as a subagent of the seller. Under the NAR policy, REALTORS® are required to get a written agreement signed with a buyer when they are “working with a buyer”. In other words, when they are providing brokerage services or “representing” the buyer. Under Texas law, agents cannot practice in a “non-agency” capacity. Agents must represent someone in the transaction. So, if the buyer doesn’t want representation, the agent could only continue to help the buyer by working as a subagent of the seller. The agent would have to get the consent of the listing broker before acting as a subagent. If subagency is not available, the agent could not help the buyer. Because the buyer is refusing representation and the listing broker will not consent to subagency, the buyer would have to contact the listing broker to see the property. If faced with this situation, an agent should take the time to explain what “representation” means. A buyer may not fully understand that refusing to sign a buyer rep agreement means that no one is looking out for their best interest. And remember that the buyer representation agreement is flexible and can be completed with a term as short as one day and with no compensation. This may help a hesitant buyer feel more comfortable in signing a “representation” agreement to be shown a property.  

    • How should we respond to the question: 'What do you do if your Buyer says they only want to see the homes that are offering BAC?'

      Agents and Brokers need to avoid any appearance of steering. MLS rules require agents to provide a list of all available properties based on their client’s objective criteria in the market area. The list of properties cannot be filtered based on compensation. Let the client decide which property they would like to see from the list. An agent should also explain that it’s possible a seller would consider paying buyer’s agent compensation through negotiations. A buyer would miss that opportunity if they only saw properties that offered a BAC upfront. 

       

    • How should we respond to "Can the seller require a buyer to have representation?"

      A buyer has the right to choose whether the buyer has representation in a real estate transaction, and a seller can choose which offers to accept or reject. 

    • Subagency continues to be a concern regarding open houses that agents may want to host for agents from other brokerages. The agents at smaller companies (where there are fewer office listings or fewer agents to cover for the listing agent) have worked together in the past to host open houses for each other. Agents are concerned about their agency relationship in this situation. The discussions I am hearing are frustration around becoming a subagent vs asking every attendee of the open house to sign the short form buyer/tenant representation agreement at a minimum before entering the house. Are these the only 2 options for agents in this situation?

      Yes. Under Texas law, a license holder must represent someone in the transaction. Either the seller, or the buyer, or both under intermediary. Texas law does not allow a license holder to practice in a “non-agency” capacity. An agent outside of the listing broker’s firm can host an open house as a subagent of the seller without getting written agreements with buyers. The agent would have to get the consent of the listing broker to act as a subagent. It’s important to remember that as a subagent, the fiduciary duty is to the seller. If the agent is not representing the seller as a subagent, they would have to represent the buyer. The agent is now “working with a buyer” and is required to get written agreements signed by each buyer. 

       

  • Broker Responsibility
  • Commission Issues
    • How should we respond to 'What happens if the Buyer does NOT have funds to pay the BAC agreed to in the Buyer Rep Agreement and services have been provided and a closing date is set?'

      The title company will most likely continue with the closing and the buyer’s agent would have to seek enforcement of their agreement outside of the transaction. The buyer would be in default and the buyer’s broker can enforce the terms of the Buyer Representation Agreement. The broker has the right to terminate the representation when the buyer defaults. The broker could also file a civil action against the client for the agreed upon fee in the representation agreement. 

    • For a lease transaction, if the commission to the tenant's broker is being paid via the listing broker using Paragraph 5A in the listing agreement, we can use the Compensation Agreement Between Brokers (TXR 2402). However, if the landlord is paying the tenant’s agent directly, what do we use?

      If the landlord is paying the tenant’s broker, use the Compensation Agreement Between Broker and Owner (TXR 2401). Note: For broker-to-broker compensation with a lease, you can also use the Agreement Between Brokers for Residential Leases (TXR 2002), which was written for lease transactions and has additional provisions specifically related to broker compensation with residential leases.

    • If the buyer is paying the listing agent's compensation, what form would you use?

      There is no form for that. The parties can contact an attorney to draft language for that purpose. Also, this type of language would not be considered an “informational item”, and license holders should not write this kind of term in Special Provisions.

    • The listing agent tells the buyer's agent that the seller will pay the compensation and to put it in the offer (i.e., include the compensation in Paragraph 12A(1)(b) of the contract). The buyer’s agent sends over documents for the contract without completing Paragraph 12. The seller executes the contract. Since the buyer's agent didn't include the compensation in Paragraph 12A(1)(b), is the seller obligated to pay the buyer's agent's commission?

      No. The seller is not obligated to pay the buyer’s agent unless the seller has agreed to pay in writing.

    • The listing agent tells the buyer’s agent that there'll be co-broker compensation and sends over the Compensation Agreement Between Brokers (TXR 2402). The buyer’s agent signs TXR 2402 but doesn't complete the Disclosure paragraph on Page 10 of the contract. Is the compensation still to be paid?

      Yes. If TXR 2402 was negotiated and executed by the brokers, that agreement would create a binding contract for compensation. In this situation, where the listing broker is paying the buyer’s broker fees, the Disclosure paragraph can still be used to provide information to the title company on how the parties are handling brokers’ fees but is not required. 

  • Contracts, Forms, or Notices
    • Addendum Concerning Right to Terminate Due to Lender’s Appraisal (TXR 1948). In paragraph 3 we have a new right to terminate. Can this be used to input a value above the contract price? I see no reason this cannot be. For example, some properties are marketed as being listed at "below value" or worth "x more than list." If a buyer goes under contract on such a property, can this paragraph be used to input the higher value and then back out if the property comes in at below that amount?

      The amount inserted in paragraph 3 is a negotiable term. The parties should carefully consider what amount to insert, especially if that amount differs from the contract sales price, because it determines if the buyer has a right to terminate. Also, keep in mind that TREC rule 535.155(d)(11) states that an advertisement about the value of a property is false or misleading unless it is based on an appraisal that is disclosed and readily available upon request by a party or it is given in compliance with §535.17 regarding comparative market analysis. Listing brokers need to be careful when advertising the property as being below value.  

    • An instructor said that ANY information we get for a buyer from another source we should write on the 'Information from Other Sources' to share information? Thoughts?

      In general, it is a good idea to document what information was provided to the buyer and when that information was provided as a risk reduction practice, but the information from other sources form is not mandatory. It is up to the broker to determine when to use the form and what information to include in the form. 

    • Regarding Compensation Agreement Between Brokers (TXR 2402) and Compensation Agreement Between Broker and Owner (TXR 2401). Do we need PERMISSION from the Buyer to put their names on the Form under the 'Registration' paragraph and send that back to the Listing Brokerage?

      No, assuming the buyer has signed a Texas REALTORS® Buyer/Tenant Representation Agreement (TXR 1501 or 1507). Permission from the buyer would not be necessary since they have already agreed, in Section 7. Broker Compensation, of the buyer rep agreement that their broker will be attempting to obtain payment of the agreed-upon compensation from the seller and/or the seller’s broker. 

    • Do we have an FAQ for "Is there something in writing somewhere that I can prove to an agent "nothing says inspections cannot be done before earnest and option are received" buyer has wired and has not been received yet today. Inspection scheduled for tomorrow, because seller required buyer to go to a 7-day option to accept. Multiple offers. Listing agent told buyer agent they can't do inspection until funds are received".

      Depositing of the earnest money is not required for the buyer to be allowed access to perform their inspections. Once the parties have executed the contract, the parties must comply with their obligations. Section 7(A) of the One to Four Family Residential Contract (Resale) (TXR 1601) requires the Seller to “permit Buyer and Buyer’s agents access to the Property at reasonable times. Buyer may have the Property inspected by inspectors selected by Buyer…” Allowing access to the property for inspections is one of the seller’s obligations once the contract is executed and continues through the time the contract is in effect. The contract is effective when signed by the parties, even if earnest money has not been deposited yet. Note: We don’t currently have an FAQ on this specific topic. We will consider adding this topic in the future. 

    • Must a party include a reasonable opportunity (time) to cure a default in a notice of default delivered to the other party - or does the law say, "a default is a default" and the party can move on to contractual remedies for default without giving an opportunity to cure if the contract does not contain a required cure period/opportunity?

      It depends on the contract and the law. Generally, the contract should spell out if there is any cure period or opportunity to cure after a notice is delivered. Contracts that have such a notice provision will specify how long the cure period is after notice is delivered. If the contract lacks a notice of default requirement, the non-defaulting party may immediately pursue default remedies if desired. Additionally, depending on the subject matter of the contract, there may be statutory provisions that require a party provide an opportunity to cure after notice has been given. 

    • When a contract or provision in a contract is not "time is of the essence," is there a reasonable time standard in Texas case law (specific to real estate contracts and TREC contracts in particular) - or is it truly based on the fact scenario at issue?

      It depends on the facts. The easy situation is when the contract or a paragraph says, “time is of the essence”. This phrase indicates that the parties consider the contract or paragraph to be a material part of the contract, and a court will strictly enforce any time deadlines. If the contract or paragraph doesn’t say, “time is of the essence”, then the court will use its discretion to determine if a provision is a “material” term. If so, the court can still treat a time deadline as “time is of the essence”, even if the contract doesn’t contain those exact words. If the court determines the provision is “immaterial”, the court has discretion to insert a reasonable time standard. 

  • Disclosure Requirements
    • TREC Rule 535.6 requires wholesalers to disclose in writing to both the seller and buyer. There is no formal process for doing this. Can we accept whatever written notice was given to the owner of the property and attach it to the contract as an exhibit? If not, what would be acceptable? Many license holders represent buyers of these types of properties. Also, it goes without saying that the license holder should not draft anything for the wholesaler. Finally, if the wholesaler went under contract without advising the owner, then how is this to be reported?

      The equitable interest rule under 535.6 does not specify how this disclosure is to be made other than it must be in writing. The wholesaler should maintain a copy of the notice and document the date and manner in which the notice was provided. If the disclosure is not made, a complaint may be filed with TREC. 

  • Landlord-Tenant issues
  • Local, State, Federal Law
    • Does the FTC Business Opportunity Rule apply to real estate brokers/brokerages advertising to recruit sales agents, particularly with respect to provision of leads, earnings potentials, etc.?

      Possibly. Brokerages that actively recruit new agents, and offer them tangible assistance, need to be familiar with the Business Opportunity Rule (BOR). If the BOR is implicated, then the brokerage must make certain required disclosures. In order to be subject to the BOR there are three elements that must be met:

      1. A seller must solicit a prospective purchaser to enter into a new business (i.e. soliciting new agents to join your brokerage)
      2. The purchaser must make a “required payment”; and
      3. The seller must promise to provide one of three types of listed assistance:
        1. Provide locations for the use or operation of equipment, displays, vending machines, or similar devices, owned, leased, controlled, or paid for by the purchaser; or
        2. Provide outlets, accounts, or customers, including, but not limited to, Internet outlets, accounts, or customers, for the purchaser’s goods or services (i.e customer lists or leads); or
        3. Buy back any or all of the goods or services that the purchaser makes.

      The “assistance” element is the most important consideration for brokerages that actively solicit new agents.  The BOR is triggered when the solicitation to join the brokerage promises “assistance” to the “buyer” (in this case, the salesperson) in return for a payment. “Providing accounts, including but not limited to, Internet outlets, accounts, or customers for prospective purchaser” would all be considered as “assistance” under the BOR. The BOR also states that “advertising and general advice about business development and training shall not be considered” as providing the assistance which would implicate the BOR.  Brokerages need to be careful about what kind of tangible assistance is promised to new agents, such as customer lists or leads, as this is what may trigger the required disclosures per the BOR. Brokerages that need to comply with the BOR should work with their attorney when making the required disclosures. For more information on compliance with the BOR please visit NARs site and speak with your brokerage attorney.

  • Professional Standards
    • Does a Buyer's Agent have to find out if the Seller is offering compensation BEFORE we show the property? Or could the buyer's broker explain in writing that they will show ALL properties that meet the buyer's criteria and will call to find out IF there is an offer of BAC once the buyer identifies the properties they're interested in? Note, there are concerns about Commission Steering. Since the Buyer has an agreement with the Buyer Rep I can argue that it is a standalone agreement and the Buyer knows exactly what they are obligated to pay 'X% or a flat fee' of the sales price. But some of the COE's leave questions. For example, Standard of Practice 3-1... Terms of compensation, if any, shall be ascertained by cooperating brokers before beginning efforts to accept the offer of cooperation. (Amended 1/99) What does 'shall be ascertained by the cooperating brokers before beginning efforts to accept the offer of cooperation?'

      Standard of Practice 3-1 requires buyer’s agents to determine what, if any, compensation is being paid by the listing broker when initiating discussions to submit an offer. Keep in mind, there may be changes to the Code of Ethics, especially Article 3, when NAR next meets in November. There is no requirement that the buyer’s agent determines if there is compensation before showing the property. SoP 3-1 states that terms of compensation be ascertained before beginning efforts to accept an offer of compensation. There is an MLS rule that prohibits REALTORS® from filtering the list of properties provided to the buyer based on compensation. REALTORS® must provide the buyer with all properties that meet the buyer’s criteria. The agent can then discuss with their client when to find out if there is compensation available. A buyer may want to know compensation information before they visit property. A broker can also set an office policy regarding when to find out about compensation. Regardless of which approach is used; after providing the entire list of properties, agents should let the buyer decide which properties they actually want to visit. 

  • Unknown/Other
    • In Agent Remarks there's a note that says, 'Buyer Agent MUST be present at ALL showings if representing a client'. Is this allowed?

      If this language is providing showing instructions, this is permissible. The seller can determine the rules regarding access to their listed property. If this language is referring to a condition a buyer’s agent must follow to receive compensation, it may violate MLS rules. NAR policy does not prohibit agents from setting conditions for receiving compensation. However, compensation information cannot be included in an MLS. Check with your local MLS to determine if they would consider this language permissible to include in agent remarks. 


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